Oh not at all--see, I am really interested in just that interpretation of Frodo/Sam because I know other people who have it and I do think it's supported in the text. I tend to not really think author intent is very important, myself. So yes, I can be easily persuaded that Tolkien wouldn't have wanted to write one thing or another given what he's said in his letters or his life, but I think in looking at the book it's wrong to act as if someone who sees that F/S scene as seeming more romantic and more real than anything between Aragorn and Arwen (not that there are any of those, practically!) is projecting or seeing what they want to see. People have always been people, after all. Even before there was a word for homosexuality people were attracted to their same sex.

It is also particularly funny when people act as if LOTR was written so long ago it's completely divorced from us, as if the 1950s are not part of the modern world, or that homosexuality wasn't even known about much less written about when of course it was.